Edits to “Statement”, “Solution”, “Answer”

astrosander edited
revision #18552 parent #18551 ← older newer →
@@ -1,7 +1,7 @@
### Statement
$3.5.22.$ Each time the oscillator passes through the equilibrium position in the same direction, an additional impulse
−$p$ is imparted to it by a kick in the direction of velocity. What will be the motion of the oscillator, and what steady-state maximum speed will be established? The characteristics of the oscillator are known. Consider two limiting cases: $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w}<<1 $ and $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w}>>1. $
+$p$ is imparted to it by a kick in the direction of velocity. What will be the motion of the oscillator, and what steady-state maximum speed will be established? The characteristics of the oscillator are known. Consider two limiting cases: $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w} \ll 1 $ and $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w} \gg 1. $
### Solution
@@ -16,40 +16,27 @@Solution
$$ \frac{d v }{d t}+w_{0}^{2}x+\frac{\mu}{m}v=0 $$
And with $x(0)=0:$
−$$ x(t)=A\cdot e^{-\lambda t /2}sin(wt), \lambda=\frac{\mu}{m} $$
+$$ x(t)=A\cdot e^{-\lambda t /2}\sin(wt), \lambda=\frac{\mu}{m} $$
−In first let's consider $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w}<<1 $. Drag is very weak.
+In first let's consider $ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w} \ll 1 $. Drag is very weak.
That means $ w\approx w_{0} $ and also means that we can neglect the exponent while calculating integral, because it will lead only to additional terms of 2nd (and greater, thus very small) power of $\lambda$. (one can check by Taylor series).
−SO, $ v(t)=v_{0}cos(w_{0}t) $,
−$$ Q_{-}=\int_{0}^{\frac{2 \pi}{w_{0}}} \lambda m v_{0}^{2} \cdot cos^{2}(w_{0}t)\,dt=\lambda m v_{0}^{2} \pi /w_{0} $$
+SO, $ v(t)=v_{0}\cos(w_{0}t) $,
+$$ Q_{-}=\int_{0}^{\frac{2 \pi}{w_{0}}} \lambda m v_{0}^{2} \cdot \cos^{2}(w_{0}t)\,dt=\lambda m v_{0}^{2} \pi /w_{0} $$
Where $ v_{0} $ is speed right after impulse boost.
$$ Q_{+}=\frac{m}{2}(v_{0}^{2}-(v_{0}-\frac{p}{m})^{2})\approx pv_{0}, $$since $p$ is small, because of weak drag.
Eventually we have $ v_{0}=\frac{p w_{0}}{\lambda m \pi } $.
−Also, since it is decaying harmonic oscillator, we could take $ v_{0}\cdot e^{-\frac{1}{2}\frac{2 \pi \lambda }{w}}=v_{0}-\frac{p}{m} $. And instantly get $$ v_{0}=\frac{p}{m}\frac{1}{1-exp(-\frac{\pi \lambda}{w})}\approx \frac{p w_{0}}{\lambda m \pi } $$.
+Also, since it is decaying harmonic oscillator, we could take $ v_{0}\cdot e^{-\frac{1}{2}\frac{2 \pi \lambda }{w}}=v_{0}-\frac{p}{m} $. And instantly get $$ v_{0}=\frac{p}{m}\frac{1}{1-\exp(-\frac{\pi \lambda}{w})}\approx \frac{p w_{0}}{\lambda m \pi } $$.
Note that we can't use it for the other case, since the solutions $ x(t) $ are equal only in complex form, and in real they're two different types of motion.
One has decaying sinusoid, and another have just multiplication of decaying real exponents: $x(t)=e^{-\lambda/2t} \cdot A e^{-\sqrt{\lambda^2/4 - ω_0^2}t} $. So the solution from Savchenko book is not correct.
Physically, solution shows that body will eventually reach $ x=0 $ with zero velocity. So, $ v=\frac{p}{m} $.
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
−
#### Answer
−$ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w}<<1 $, $ v_{0}=\frac{p}{m}\frac{1}{1-exp(-\frac{\pi \lambda}{w})}\approx \frac{p w_{0}}{\lambda m \pi } $;
+$ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w} \ll 1 $, $ v_{0}=\frac{p}{m}\frac{1}{1-\exp(-\frac{\pi \lambda}{w})}\approx \frac{p w_{0}}{\lambda m \pi } $;
−$ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w}>>1 $, $ v=\frac{p}{m} $.
+$ \frac{2 \pi \lambda}{w} \gg 1 $, $ v=\frac{p}{m} $.