Edit to “Solution”

Tete edited
revision #20367 parent #20350 ← older
@@ -18,8 +18,8 @@Solution
\[\int_0^{2\pi}-fr\,d\alpha=\int_0^{2\pi}-\mu m\left(g\cos\alpha+\frac{v^2}{r}\right)r\,d\alpha.\]
−Since the average of $\cos\alpha$ for $0\le\alpha\le2\pi$ is zero, the integral simplies to $-2\pi\mu mv^2$.
+Since the average of $\cos\alpha$ for $0\le\alpha\le2\pi$ is zero, the integral simplifies to $-2\pi\mu mv^2$.
#### Answer
$-2\pi\mu mv^2$